Important mcqs Biology-chapter Homeostasis

Introduction

These MCQs are prepared for MDCAT preparation and are also highly useful for FSC students for board exams and concept revision. Practicing these multiple-choice questions helps improve understanding, speed, and exam confidence.

Chapter #15 Homeostasis

Q1. An animal has how many types of environment?

A) Two types

B) Three types

C) Four types

D) One type

Q2. The internal environment of a man is formed by the circulating organic liquid called as:

A) Lymph or plasma

B) Blood

C) Urine

D) None of these

Q3. The tendency of an organism or cell to regulate its internal conditions is called:

A) Feedback mechanism

B) Homeostasis

C) Thermostasis

D) None of these

Q4. What acts as a thermostat in human body?

A) Hypothalamus

B) Amygdala

C) Cerebellum

D) Medulla oblongata

Q5. The process in which reaction itself is controlled by the products of reaction is called:

A) Homeostasis

B) Negative feedback

C) Feedback mechanism

D) None of these

Q6. The feedback mechanism which results in a reversal of direction of the change is called:

A) Positive feedback

B) Neutral feedback

C) Negative feedback

D) All of these

7) Which feedback mechanism tends to stabilize the system?

A) Positive

B) Negative

C) Both

D) None

8) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is released by

A) Anterior pituitary gland

B) Posterior pituitary lobe

C) Intermediate lobe

D) All of these

9) The release of ADH makes collecting tubules and distal convoluted tubules of nephron ______ to water.

A) Permeable

B) Semi-permeable

C) Non-permeable

D) All of these

10) The feedback mechanism which facilitates the stimuli is known as

A) Negative feedback

B) Helpful feedback

C) Positive feedback

D) Facilitating feedback

11) Sometimes feedback mechanism is harmful

A) Negative

B) Positive

C) Both

D) None

12. The maintenance of water and salts in the intercellular fluids is called:

(A) Homeostasis

(B) Thermostasis

(D) Osmoregulation

13. Animal body is composed of how much amount of water?

(A) 80%

(B) 90%

(D) 70%

14. The medium in which biochemical reactions occur is:

(A) Blood

(B) Plasma

(D) Oxygen

15. Osmoregulation involves movement of ______ by osmosis:

(A) Water

(B) Salts

(D) All of these

16. Osmoregulation is a/an ______ process:

(A) Passive

(B) Active

(D) None

17. The animals which do not undergo net loss or gain of water are called:

(A) Osmoconformers

(B) Osmomaintainers

(D) All of the above

18. In osmoconformers, the animal body fluids are kept ______.

(A) Hypertonic

(B) Isotonic

(D) None of these

19. The animals in which body fluids solute concentration is different from the external environment are called:

(A) Osmoconformers

(B) Osmomaintainers

(D) All of these

20. All the land animals are:

(A) Osmoregulators

(B) Osmoconformers

(D) None of these

21. Almost all of the animals are osmoregulators:

(A) Marine

(B) Land animals

(D) Both B and C

22. Fresh water animals are generally _____ to their outer environment:

(A) Hypotonic

(B) Hypertonic

(D) Both A and B

23. Fresh water animals actively transport salts from the external dilute medium with the help of special salt cells called:

(A) Ionocytes

(B) Telocytes

(D) All of the above

24. Ionocytes are found in:

(A) Amphibians’ skin

(B) Fish gills

(D) Both A and B

25. Fresh water animals get rid of excess water with the help of:

(A) Ionocyte cells

(B) Diffusion

(D) Effusion

26. The marine animals are:

(A) Osmoregulators

(B) Osmoconformers

(D) None of these

27. Cartilaginous fish and some cyclostomes have plasma which is _____ to sea water:

(A) Hypertonic

(B) Isotonic

(D) All of these

28. Myxine (hagfish) is a _____ fish:

(A) Cyclostome

(B) Cartilaginous

(D) None of these

29. Most of the marine bony fish (teleosts) are _____ to the sea water:

(A) Hypertonic

(B) Isotonic

(D) None of these

30. Osmolarity of sea water is about:

(A) 900 mOsm/L

(B) 1000 mOsm/L

(D) 1500 mOsm/L

31. The blood osmolarity of marine animals is:

(A) 200–300 millimole/L

(B) 300–400 millimole/L

(D) 1000 millimole/L

32. In marine animals the salt solute concentration is _____ to sea water:

(A) Hypertonic

(B) Isotonic

(D) None of these

33. The excess monovalent ions like Na⁺, Cl⁻ and some K⁺ are removed by marine animals through:

(A) Skin

(B) Kidneys

(D) Diffusion

34. The excess divalent ions like Mg²⁺ and Ca²⁺ are removed by marine animals through:

(A) Skin

(B) Kidneys

(D) Gills epithelium

35. Some fish have special salt-secreting glands in their rectum called as:

(A) Rectal glands

(B) Rectum glands

(D) All of these

36. The successful group of land animals among invertebrates and reptiles are:

A) Arthropods

B) Annelids

C) Mollusks

D) snakes

37. In arthropods exoskeleton is made up of

A) Cellulose

B) Chitin

C) Reptidoglycan

D) Keratin

38. The skin of vertebrates is made up of

A) Chitin

B) Cellulose

C) Live keratin

D) Dead keratin

39. The ability to tolerate against strong degree of dehydration of special metabolic and behavioral adaptations is called

A) Osmosis

B) Hydrotaxis

C) Anhydrobiosis

D) Osmoregulation

40. Which animal is known as master of water conservation in deserts?

A) Camel

B) Kangaroo rat

C) Snakes

D) Scorpions

41. To remove 1 gram of nitrogen, how much amount of water is needed?

A) 1000 ml

B) 700 ml

C) 600 ml

D) 500 ml

42. Formation of urea within liver is called

A) Amination

B) Deamination

C) Urination

D) Nitrogenation

Q43. The most hazardous waste produced as a waste in human body is:

A) Urea

B) Uric acid

C) Nitrogen

D) Ammonia

Q44. The primary waste product produced in man’s body is:

A) Ammonia

B) Urea

C) Uric acid

D) Glucose

Q45. Most aquatic animals including most large fishes excrete their nitrogenous waste as:

A) Urea

B) Uric acid

C) Ammonia

D) All of these

Q46. Mammals, most amphibians, sharks, some bony fish excrete their nitrogenous waste in the form of:

A) Urea

B) Uric acid

C) Ammonia

D) All of these

Q47. Uric acid is excreted as nitrogenous waste by:

A) Reptiles

B) Birds

C) Insects

D) All of these

Q48. Ammonium is soluble in water.

A) Nonsoluble

B) highly soluble

C) partially soluble

D) None of these

Answer Key (1–48):

1.A

2.A

3.B

4.A

5.C

6.C

7.B

8.B

9.A

10.C

11.B

12.D

13.D

14.C

15.D

16.B

17.A

18.B

19.C

20.A

21.D

22.B

23.A

24.D

25.C

26.C

27.B

28.A

29.C

30.B

31.A

32.C

33.C

34.B

35.A

36.A

37.B

38.D

39.C

40.B

41.D

42.B

43.D

44.A

45.C

46.A

47.D

48.B

78. The pelvis leads into

A) Pyramids

B) Ureter

C) Collecting duct

D) Loop of Henle

79. Ureters are about

A) 20 cm long

B) 25 cm long

C) 28 cm long

D) 30 cm long

80. Urinary bladder is ______ shaped

A) Pear

B) Peas

C) Bean

D) Cone

81. Urinary bladder is situated in which region of the body?

A) Pelvis region

B) Pelvic

C) Hilus

D) Collecting duct

82. Urinary bladder can store how much amount of urine?

A) 0.5 to 1 litre

B) 1–1.5 litre

C) 1 litre – 2 litre

D) None

83. The lower part or neck of the urinary bladder is guarded by two rings of muscle called

A) Sphincter cardiac

B) Sphincters

C) Bladder muscles

D) None

84. The act of emptying the bladder is called ______

A)Expiration

B) urination

C) Micturition

D) De urination

85. In female urethra is about

A) 2–3 cm long

B) 2–10 cm long

C) 4–5 cm long

D) Don’t have urethra

86. In males urethra is about

A) 10 cm long

B) 20 cm long

C) 25 cm long

D) 30 cm long

87. In male urethra carries

A) Urine

B) Spermatic fluid

C) Semen

D) All of these

88. Human kidneys contain about how many nephrons?

A) 1 million

B) 2 million

C) 3 million

D) 4 million

89. It is a capillary tuft that receives its blood supply from an afferent arteriole of renal circulation

A) Bowman’s capsule

B) Glomerulus

C) Renal tubule

D) None of these

90. Bowman’s capsule is ______ shaped

A) Cup

B) Peas

C) Bean

D) Cone

91. The cells of Bowman’s capsule that wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus are called

A) Amoebocytes

B) Telocytes

C) Podocytes

D) Parocytes

92. Renal corpuscle contains

A) Bowman’s capsule

B) Glomerulus

C) Loop of Henle

D) Both A and B

93. Renal tubule contains

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Loop of Henle

C) Distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts

D) All

94. The longest part of nephron is

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Loop of Henle

C) Collecting duct

D) Distal convoluted tubule

95. Which part of nephron increases surface area for reabsorption?

A) Collecting duct

B) Proximal convoluted tubule

C) Bowman’s capsule

D) Distal convoluted tubule

96. Loop of Henle is more prominent in

A) Cortical nephrons

B) Juxtamedullary nephrons

C) Both

D) None

97. Which is an important part of kidney which allows the kidneys to excrete salts and maintain correct balance of water in the body?

A)loop of Henle

B) proximal convoluted tubule

C) collecting tubules

D) distal convoluted tubule

98. Which part of nephron is present both in cortex and medulla regions?

A) Loop of Henle

B) Proximal convoluted tubule

C) Collecting duct

D) Distal convoluted tubule

99. Collecting ducts deliver urine to

A) Renal pelvis

B) Urinary bladder

C) Urethra

D) None of these

100. 70–80% nephrons in the human kidneys are

A) Juxtamedullary

B) Cortical

C) Central

D) None of these

Answers Keys

78: B

79: C

80: A

81–90

81: B

82: A

83: B

84: C

85: A

86: B

87: D

88: B

89: B

90: C

91–100

91: D

92: D

93: D

94: B

95: B

96: B

97: A

98: C

99: B

100: C

101. Only 20–30% nephrons in the human kidneys are

A) Juxtamedullary

B) Cortical

C) Intermedullary

D) None

102. Which type of nephrons do not work when the other one works?

A) Juxtamedullary

B) Cortical

C) Intermedullary

D) None

103. Juxtamedullary nephrons are responsible for the development of osmotic gradients in renal medulla which are used to

A) concentrated urine

B)dilute urine

C) excrete urine

D) all of these

104. When the waste is in short supply, increased water reabsorption occurs through

A) Cortical nephrons

B) Juxtamedullary nephrons

C) Collecting duct

D) All of these

105. Renal artery which branches into finer and finer arterioles before entering glomerulus is known as

A) Efferent arteriole

B) Afferent arteriole

C) Renal arteriole

D) None of these

106. Filtered leaves the glomerulus by

A) Efferent arteriole

B) Afferent arteriole

C) Renal arteriole

D) None of these

107. The capillaries around proximal and distal convoluted tubules in the cortex region are called

A) Efferent capillaries

B) Afferent capillaries

C) Peritubular capillaries

D) None

108. The capillaries of vasa recta run to the loop of Henle and collecting duct in medulla

A) Parallel

B) Perpendicular

C) Antiparallel

D) None

109. Formation of urine involves how many processes?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

110. Ultrafiltration is also known as

A) Tubular reabsorption

B) Tubular secretion

C) Passive filtration

D) Temperature filtration

111. The diameter of afferent arteriole is ______ as the diameter of efferent arteriole

A) Twice

B) Half

C) Same

D) Thrice

112. How much plasma is filtered into Bowman’s capsule?

A) 30%

B) 20%

C) 10%

D) 50%

113. The filtered plasma in Bowman’s capsule is known as

A) Bowman’s filtrate

B) Plasma filtrate

C) Glomerular filtrate

D) None of these

114. Ultrafiltration produces how much amount of glomerulus filtrate?

A) 120 ml/min

B) 130 ml/min

C) 135 ml/min

D) 125 ml/min

115. Ultrafiltration produces how much amount of glomerular filtrate in a day?

A) 180 liters

B)185 liters

C190liters

D) 200 liters

116. Out of 125 ml of glomerular filtrate how much amount of filtrate is reabsorbed on average?

A) 120 ml

B) 124 ml

C) 110 ml

D) 100 ml

117. Over 80% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in

A) Distal convoluted tubule

B) Collecting duct

C) Proximal convoluted tubule

D) Loop of Henle

118. The function of Loop of Henle is

A) Release water

B) Conserve salts

C) Both A and B

D) Conserve water

119. The wall of ascending limb of nephron is

A) Impermeable to water

B) Permeable

C) Partially permeable

D) None of these

120. Which part of nephron has osmoregulatory role?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Collecting duct

D) Loop of Henle

121. ADH opens water channels in

A) loop of Henle

B) urinary bladder

C) collecting duct

D) proximal convoluted tubule

122. Tubular secretion is the transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to

A) Afferent arteriole

B) Efferent arteriole

C) Glomerulus

D) Renal tubular lumen

123. Most important substances secreted by tubular secretion are

A) Hydrogen ions

B) Potassium ions

C) Organic ions

D) All of these

124. The solute potential is primarily achieved by the effect of

A) ADH

B) TSH

C) FSH

D) Sweat glands

125. The level of blood sodium is controlled at a steady state by hormone

A) ADH

B) Aldosterone

C) Testosterone

D) Progesterone

126. Aldosterone is secreted

A) Adrenal cortex

B) Adrenal medulla

C) Both

D) None

127. Aldosterone pumps in the kidneys

A) Sodium

B) Potassium

C) Both

D) None

128. Which part of the urinary tract are rarely infected?

A) Kidneys

B) Urinary bladder

C) Collecting ducts

D) Ureters

129. Pyelonephritis is an infection of

A) Kidneys

B) Urinary bladder

C) Collecting ducts

D) Ureters

130. Cystitis is an infection of

A) Kidneys

B) Urinary bladder

C) Collecting ducts

D) Urethra

Answer keys (111-130)

111–120

111: A

112: B

113: C

114: D

115: A

116: B

117: C

118: D

119: A

120: B

121–130

121: C

122: D

123: D

124: A

125: B

126: A

127: C

128: D

129: A

130: B

131. Urethritis is an infection of

A) Kidneys

B) Urinary bladder

C) Urethra

D) Ureters

132. Candida albicans which causes infection in mouth, digestive tract, vagina and urinary tract is a

A) Fungus

B) Bacteria

C) Virus

D) Algae

133. Kidney stones are formed when there is

A) Decrease in urine volume

B) Excess of stone-forming substances

C) Increase in urine volume

D) Both A and B

134. The most common type of kidney stones contain ______ in combination with oxalate or phosphate

A) Calcium

B) Sodium

C) Phosphates

D) Iron

135. How much percentage of kidney stones contain calcium?

A) 80%

B) 70%

C) 75%

D) 85%

136. How much percentage of kidney stones is formed by uric acid?

A) 10–20%

B) 20–30%

C) 5–10%

D) 10–15%

137. How much amount of kidney stones is formed by amino acid cystine?

A) 1–3%

B) 3–5%

C) 5–7%

D) 5–10%

138. Kidney stones formed by infection in the urinary tract are called

A) Struvite

B) Infection stones

C) Cystine

D) Both A and B

139. How much percentage of kidney stones is formed by infections?

A) 15–20%

B) 10–15%

C) 5–10%

D) 20–30%

140. Hypercalciuria is caused by

A) Hypocalcemia

B) Increased calcium level in blood

C) Hyperparathyroidism

D) All of these

141. Hyperoxaluria is caused by

A) High oxalate level in urine

B) Overuse of vitamin C

C) Green leafy vegetables in diet

D) All of these

142. Hyperuricemia is caused by

A) Increased amount of uric acid in blood

B) Gout

C) High intake of protein

D) All of these

143. The kidney stones which can spontaneously pass from the site of formation are of the size of

A) Less than 0.5 cm

B) Greater than 0.5 cm

C) Less than 0.1 cm

D) Less than 1.5 cm

144. The small sized kidney stones can be removed by

A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)

B) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)

C) Both

D) None

145. The large sized kidney stones can be removed by

A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)

B) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)

C) None

D) Both

146. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) breaks the stones with the help of waves called

A) Ultrasonic waves

B) X-rays

C) Radio waves

D) None

147. Which type of waves are used in percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)?

A) Ultrasonic

B) Sound

C) Infrared

D) Photons

148. How many forms of kidney failure are there?

A) Three

B) Two

C) Four

D) Five

149. Chronic kidney failure can progress to

A) End-stage renal disease

B) Uremia

C) Both A and B

D) None of these

150. How many types of renal dialysis are there?

A) Four

B) Three

C) One

D) Two

Answer keys (131-150)

131–140
131: C
132: A
133: D
134: A
135: B
136: C
137: A
138: D
139: A
140: D
141–150
141: C
142: D
143: A
144: C
145: A
146: C
147: A
148: B
149: C
150: D

151. The stages of peritoneal dialysis are

A) Exchange stage

B) Dwell stage

C) Drain stage

D) Both A and B

152. The external filter in hemodialysis is known as

A) Dialyzer

B) Kidney

C) Nephron

D) Tubule

158. Animals which cannot change or are able to maintain their body temperature are called

A) Warm blooded animals

B) Homeotherms

C) Poikilotherms

D) Both A and B

159. Animals gain energy from how many sources?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) One

160. The animals which rely on a heat derived from environment are called

A) Endotherms

B) Ectotherms

C) Homeotherms

D) None

161. Polar bear is a/an ______ animal.

A) Endothermic

B) Homeothermic

C) Ectothermic

D) Both A and B

162. Goose bumps are produced by

A) Erector muscles

B) Hair muscles

C) Gross body muscles

D) None of these

163. The hairs in mammals act as

A) Conducting organs

B) Insulating organs

C) Sensory organs

D) All of these

164. The temperature of structures below skin and subcutaneous tissues should be maintained at

A) 35–40°C

B) 36–37°C

C) 36.4–37.3°C

D) 39.4–40.3°C

165. Major source of heat energy in humans is:

A) Liver

B) Sunlight

C) Digestion of food

D) Respiratory metabolism

166. How many types of thermogenesis are there?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) One

167. Shivering thermogenesis can increase heat production ___ the basal level:

A) Four times

B) Five times

C) Twice

D) Thrice

168. The long-term increase in the metabolic rate to increase production of heat is caused by:

A) Parathyroxin

B) Adrenaline

C) Thyroxin

D) Parathormone

169. The short-term increase in metabolic activity is produced by:

A) Parathyroxin

B) Parathormone

C) Thyroxin

D) Adrenaline

170. Heat is lost from the body of humans by the process:

A) Radiation

B) Conduction and evaporation

C) Convection

D) All of these

171. Radiation accounts for about ___ of total heat loss in humans:

A) 50%

B) 60%

C) 65%

D) 70%

172. An increase in body core temperature is known as:

A) Fever

B) Pyrexia

C) Both A and B

D) None

173. The activity of hypothalamus is affected and body temperature is increased by substances:

A) Pathogens

B) Pyrogens

C) Both A and B

D) None of these

174. Pyrogens are produced by:

A) Neutrophils

B) Pathogenic organisms

C) Both A and B

D) None

175. The disadvantage of antipyretic drugs is:

A) Affect blood pressure

B) Slow down defence mechanism

C) Affect respiratory system

D) None of these

176. Shifts in water–solute balance are managed primarily by:

A) Respiratory system

B) The drainage system

C) Endocrine adjustments

D) The circulatory system

177. What is the most important mechanism of water loss from the body?

A) Excretion in urine

B) Sneezing

C) Sweating

D) Elimination in feces

178. The process that normally exerts the greatest control over the water balance of an individual is:

A) Sweating

B) Kidney function

C) Evaporation through skin

D) Respiratory loss

179. Which of the following does not dispose off a type of waste directly into the environment?

A) Digestive system

B) Respiratory system

C) Urinary system

D) Circulatory system

180. The most toxic substances routinely found in the blood are metabolites of what type of molecules?

A) Proteins

B) Carbohydrates

C) Nucleic acids

D) Fats

181. Kidney health is described in terms of:

A) Less number of kidney stones

B) Rate of filtration

C) Urine formation

D) All of these

182. Glucose is absorbed in which part of the nephron?

A) actively absorbed by proximal convoluted tubule

B) distal convoluted tubule

C) loop of Henle

D) Glomerulus

183. In case of overheating, the body temperature is regulated by:

A) More sweating and more urination

B) More sweating, less urination

C) Less sweating, more urination

D) Less sweating, less urination

184. An animal that warms itself mainly by absorbing heat from its surroundings is known as:

A) Homeotherm

B) Ectotherm

C) Endotherm

D) None of these

Answer keys (150-184)

151: D

152: A

153: B

154: C

155: D

156: A

157: D

158: D

159: A

160: B

161–170

161: A

162: A

163: B

164: C

165: D

166: A

167: B

168: C

169: D

170: D

171–180

171: A

172: C

173: C

174: C

175: B

176: C

177: A

178: B

179: D

180: A

181–184

181: D

182: A

183: A

184: B

Suggestions from exam point of view

These mcqs are helpful for fsc and mdcat exams. Students who want to get good marks in their section A in fsc exams and mdcat exams they can start their preperation from practicing these mcqs.

For mdcat aspirants

From these mcqs you can assess your self chapter wise . By practicing these mcqs your accuracy increases and your score will also be good .

If you have any question you can ask me at email ✉️ drlaiba.blogs@gmail.com

Written by:

Dr. Laiba Noor

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