Biology Mcqs- Support and Movement ( skeletal system)

Introduction 

Support and movement are essential functions in living organisms that help maintain body shape, protect internal organs, and enable locomotion. In humans, these functions are mainly performed by the skeletal and muscular systems working together. This topic covers bones, joints, muscles, and different types of movements. The following MCQs are designed to help students revise key concepts, improve understanding, and prepare effectively for exams.

Topic: Connective Tissue

1. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue consisting of cells called

A. Chondrocytes

B. Osteocytes

C. Osteoclasts

D. Osteoblasts

2. Cartilage contains a tough flexible matrix made of

A. Type I collagen

B. Type II collagen

C. Type III collagen

D. All of these

3. Which part of the body does not contain blood vessels?

A. Cartilage

B. Bones

C. Hair and nails

D. Both A and C

4. Initially human skeleton is made up of

A. Cartilage

B. Fibrous membranes

C. Both A and B

D. Bones

5. How many types of cartilage tissues are present in humans?

A. 2 types

B. 3 types

C. 5 types

D. 4 types

6. Which type of cartilage is present in respiratory system of man?

A. Fibrocartilage

B. Elastic cartilage

C. Hyaline cartilage

D. All of these

Bone and Skeleton

7. 65% of the bone matrix contains

A. Organic matter

B. Calcium phosphate

C. Carbonates

D. All of these

8. 35% of the bone matrix contains

A. Calcium phosphate

B. Proteins and collagen

C. Inorganic matter

D. Carbonates

9. The cells which help in the formation of bone are called

A. Osteocytes

B. Osteoclasts

C. Osteoblasts

D. Chondrocytes

10. The mature osteoblast cells are known as

A. Osteoclasts

B. Chondrocytes

C. Mature bone cells

D. Osteocytes

11. Osteoblasts produce a matrix which is composed mainly of

A. Type I collagen

B. Type II collagen

C. Type III collagen

12. Which type of bone cells cease to generate mineralized matrix?

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteoclasts

C. Osteocytes

D. All of these

13. Which type of bone cells have many extensions that reach out to meet and interlock for the purpose of communication?

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteocytes

C. Osteoclasts

D. Chondrocytes

14. The type of bone cells responsible for the maintenance of bone and calcium is

A. Osteocytes

B. Osteoblasts

C. Osteoclasts

D. Chondrocytes

15. Which type of bone cells are mononucleated?

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteocytes

C. Both A and B

D. Osteoclasts

16. The process of removal of mineralized matrix and breaking up of organic bone is known as

A. Decalcification

B. Resorption

C. Absorption of bone

D. Decomposition

17. Which type of bone cells are equipped with phagocytic-like mechanism similar to circulating monocytes?

A. Osteoclasts

B. Osteoblasts

C. Osteocytes

D. Chondrocytes

18. Bone is a

A. Connective tissue

B. Dynamic tissue

C. Both A and B

D. None

19. Bone is developed by the activity of

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteocytes

C. Osteoclasts

D. Both A and C

20. The chief component of organic matrix of bone contains

A. Collagen fibres

B. Glycoproteins

C. Calcium phosphate

D. Hydroxyapatite

21. The chief inorganic constituent of bone is

A. Magnesium

B. Hydroxyapatite

C. Calcium

D. Chloride ions

22. Calcium and phosphate are released into the blood when they are needed under the control of

A. Parathormone hormone

B. Calcitonin

C. Both A and B

D. Growth hormone

23. How many bones does a human body possess at the time of birth?

A. 300

B. 206

C. 350

D. 150

D. Type IV collagen

24. One and the only bone in human neck is known as

A. Hyoid

B. Neck vertebrae

C. Atlas vertebra

D. None of these

25. How many bones are there in the skull of human body?

A. 25

B. 26

C. 28

D. 32

26. How many cranium bones are in the human skull?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

27. Total number of bones in ear are

A. 4

B. 3

C. 5

D. 6

28. Total number of bones in human face are

A. 14

B. 15

C. 16

D. 21

29. Total number of auditory ossicles in man are

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3

30. Total number of vertebrae in man are

A. 32

B. 33

C. 34

D. 36

31. Total number of vertebrae in vertebral column are

A. 33

B. 12

C. 26

D. 16

32. What is the main vertebra of a tail?

A. Lumbar vertebra

B. Thoracic vertebra

C. Hyoid

D. Coccyx

33. Pelvic girdle of man is attached to

A. Sacral vertebrae

B. Lumbar vertebrae

C. Coccyx

D. Hyoid

34. How many pairs of true ribs which are attached directly to the sternum?

A. 8 pairs

B. Ten pairs

C. 7 pairs

D. 5 pairs

35. How many pairs of ‘false ribs’ which are indirectly connected with sternum through costal arch are

A. 2 pairs

B. 3 pairs

C. 4 pairs

D. 5 pairs

36. How many pairs of floating ribs which are not attached to the sternum?

A. 1 pair

B. 2 pairs

C. 4 pairs

D. 5 pairs

37. The bones of pectoral girdle consist of

A. Ventral coracoid

B. Scapula

C. Clavicle

D. All of these

38. The bone which lies on the ventral side between the scapula and sternum and articulates to the coracoid is

A. Ischium

B. Clavicle

C. Ilium

D. Pubis

39. How many carpals are there in the wrist of human arm?

A. 8 carpals

B. 5 carpals

C. 6 carpals

D. 10 carpals

40. The total number of bones in the upper limbs of man are

A. 70

B. 72

C. 64

D. 62

41. Hind limbs are attached to the vertebral column through pelvic girdle which is made up of

A. Two coxal bones

B. Four coxal bones

C. Two coccygeal bones

D. Femur bone

42. A coxal bone is formed by the combination of

A. Ilium bone

B. Ischium bone

C. Pubis bone

D. All of these

43. The shank of the human hind limb is composed of

A. Femur bone

B. Fibula and Tibia bones

C. Humerus bone

D. All of these

44. No. of bones in the ankle of man

A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

45. The sites where two or more bones meet are called

A. Joints

B. Articulations

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

46. Structural classification of joints is based on

A. Material binding the bones

B. Absence or presence of joint cavity

C. Type of bone

D. Both A and B

47. There is no joint cavity between the bones in

A. Fibrous joints

B. Immovable joints

C. Both A and B

D. Cartilaginous joints

48. Fibrous joints are joined between

A. Bones of skull

B. Ilium and sacrum of pelvic girdle

C. Between bones of pelvic girdle

D. All of these

49. Cartilaginous joints are connected entirely by which type of cartilage?

A. Fibrocartilage or hyaline

B. Elastic cartilage

C. Simple cartilage

D. Elastic and fibrocartilage

50. Cartilaginous joints are partially movable joints and are found in all of these except

A. Ankle bones

B. Skull bones

C. Wrist bones

D. Vertebrae

51. Those joints in which the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing cavity known as synovial cavity are

A. Fibrocartilaginous joints

B. Fibrous joints

C. Synovial joints

D. Cartilaginous joints

52. Synovial joints are strengthened and supported by a number of band-like structures

A. Tendons

B. Ligaments

C. Muscles

D. All of these

53. Which type of joints permit movement in one plane?

A. Ball and socket joints

B. Hinge joints

C. Fibrous joints

D. Cartilaginous joints

54. Which type of joints allow movement of bones in 3-dimensions?

A. Hinge joints

B. Fibrous joints

C. Ball and socket joints

D. Cartilaginous joints

55. Example of ball and socket joint is

A. Hip and shoulder joints

B. Elbow and knee joints

C. Elbow and shoulder joints

D. All of these

56. Deformities or disorders of skeleton may be due to

A. Genetic

B. Hormonal

C. Effects of nutrient deficiency

D. All of these

57. The discs are protective shock-absorbing pads between the bones of

A. Spine

B. Vertebrae

C. Limbs

D. Both A and B

58. A type of cartilage in the vertebrae is known as

A. Hyaline cartilage

B. Fibrous cartilage

C. Elastic cartilage

D. Both A and C

59. Spondylosis is a degenerative disorder which may cause loss of normal spinal structure and function. It is also known as

A. Spinal osteoarthritis

B. Rheumatoid

C. Gouty

D. Tetany

60. The nerve which starts in the lower back spine and runs down the back of each leg is known as

A. Lumbar nerve

B. Sciatic nerve

C. Femoral nerve

D. Ulnar nerve

61. A pain disorder involving muscles in the buttocks is known as

A. Spondylosis

B. Rheumatoid

C. Piriformis syndrome

D. Osteoarthritis

62. Sciatica refers to

A. Pain in the muscle region

B. Weakness

C. Numbness and tingling

D. All of these

63. Common cause of sciatica is

A. Slipped disc

B. Piriformis

C. Pregnancy and tumors

D. All of these

64. Arthritis is the leading cause of disability in people over the age of

A. 45 years

B. 50 years

C. 55 years

D. 60 years

65. Redness of skin around the joint and stiffness in the morning are the symptoms of

A. Rheumatism

B. Osteoarthritis

C. Sciatica

D. Arthritis

66. Some of the causes of arthritis are

A. Broken bone

B. Infection or injury

C. Autoimmune disease

D. All of these

67. Types of bone fracture are

A. Transverse

B. Oblique

C. Spiral

D. All of these

68. A bone fracture in which skin remains intact is known as

A. Simple fracture

B. Closed fracture

C. Reduction fracture

D. All of these

69. A fracture is treated by reduction which is

A. Realignment of broken bone ends

B. Cutting of bone

C. Repairing of bones

D. None of these

70. How many types of reduction treatment are there?

A) one layer 

B) two layers 

C) three layers 

D) four layers

71. The bone ends are covered into position by the physician’s hand known as

A. Internal reduction

B. External reduction

C. Manual reduction

D. Open reduction

72. In open reduction bone ends are accessed together surgically with pins or wires also known as

A. Internal reduction

B. Advanced reduction

C. External reduction

D. Modern reduction

73. How many stages are involved in the repair of a bone?

A. One stage

B. Two stages

C. Three stages

D. Four stages

74. When a bone breaks, a mass of clotted blood is formed around the bone known as

A. Hematoma

B. Hemorrhage

C. Callus

D. All of these

75. Within a few days of fracture several events lead to the formation of soft granulation tissue also known as

A. Hard callus

B. Soft callus

C. Osteoclasts

D. Spongy bone trabeculae

76. Which type of bone cells invade the fracture site and begin reconstructing the bone?

A. Osteoblasts

B. Fibroblasts

C. Both A and B

D. Osteoclasts

77. Collagen fibre is produced by

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteocytes

C. Fibroblasts

D. Both A and C

78. First step in the repair of a fractured bone is

A. Hematoma formation

B. Bony callus formation

C. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation

D. Bone remodeling

79. Which one of the following disorders is the cause of joint destruction?

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Spondylosis

D. Spondyloarthritis

80. A sprain is an injury to a

A. Tendons

B. Muscles

C. Ligaments

D. Cartilage

81. Muscle is a specialized tissue of

A. Mesodermal origin

B. Epidermal origin

C. Ectodermal origin

D. All of these

82. Muscles make up nearly ____ of human body mass

A) 25%

B) 50%

C)65%

D)75%

83. The most distinguishing functional characteristic of muscles is their ability to

A. Transport chemical energy to mechanical work

B. To do work

C. Movement of bones

D. All of these

84. The longest muscle cells are

A. Cardiac muscle cells

B. Skeletal muscle cells

C. Smooth muscle cells

D. All of these

85. Skeletal muscles have obvious stripes known as

A. Striations

B. Skeletal fibres

C. Striations

D. Muscle fibres

86. Which type of muscles get tired easily and must rest after short period of time?

A. Cardiac muscles

B. Smooth muscles

C. Skeletal muscles

D. Both B and C

87. Which type of muscles are remarkably adaptable?

A. Skeletal muscles

B. Smooth muscles

C. Cardiac muscles

D. All of these

88. Which type of body muscles are also known as striated muscles?

A. Skeletal muscles

B. Cardiac muscles

C. Both A and B

D. Smooth muscles

89. Which type of body muscles are involuntary muscles?

A. Skeletal muscles

B. Smooth muscles

C. Cardiac muscles

D. Both B and C

90. Which type of muscles are physiologically fatigable?

A. Skeletal muscles

B. Cardiac muscles

C. Smooth muscles

D. None

91. Basic units of muscles are

A. Muscle fibres

B. Myofibrils

C. Ligaments

D. All of these

92. Muscle fibres are

A. Cylindrical

B. Unbranched

C. Have diameter of 10–100 µm

D. All of these

93. The cytoplasm of a muscle fibre is a semi-fluid dynamic also known as

A. Sarcoplasm

B. Sarcolemma

C. Sarcoplasm

D. Sarcomere

94. A muscle fibre is surrounded by a membrane known as

A. Muscle membrane

B. Cell membrane

C. Sarcolemma

D. Sarcolemmal membrane

95. The transverse T-tubule of a muscle fibre is formed by deep down penetration

A) sarcoplasmic reticulum 

B) sarcoplasma

C) myofibril

D) sarcolemma

96. A muscle fibre may be red due to the presence of

A. Myoglobin

B. Haemoglobin

C. Myofibrin

D. Haemofibrin

97. The sarcoplasm of a muscle fibre contains many contractile elements called myofibrils which are

A. 0.5–1.0 µm in diameter

B. 1–2 µm

C. 1.5–3 µm

D. 2–4 µm in diameter

98. The striations or stripes of a muscle fibre is due to the light and dark bands of

A. Sarcomeres

B. T-tubules

C. Sarcolemma

D. Myofibrils

99. Myofibrils consist of smaller contractile units called

A. I-band

B. A-band

C. Sarcomere

D. Both A and B

100. The dark bands are A-band which are

A. Anisotropic

B. Isotropic

C. Metatropic

D. All of these

101. Isotropic bands in the myofibrils are

A. A-band

B. I-band

C. Z-band

D. M-band

102. A sarcomere is the region between two successive

A. I-bands

B. Z-lines

C. A-bands

D. Both A and B

103. What is the functional unit of the contraction process in the muscles?

A. Myofibrils

B. Sarcomere

C. Muscle fibres

D. All of these

104. A myofilament is made up of

A. Central thick filament surrounded by thin filament

B. Central thin filament surrounded by thick filament

C. Both

D. None

105. Thick myofilament contains a protein known as

A. Actin

B. Myosin

C. Troponin

D. Tropomyosin

106. Thin filament is composed of a protein

A. Myosin

B. Troponin

C. Actin

D. All of these

107. Of the total energy expended in muscular contraction, how much is employed in maintaining body temperature?

A. 70%

B. 60%

C. 65%

D. 55%

108. Sudden involuntary contractions or spasms in one or more muscles is known as

A. Muscle fatigue

B. Tetany

C. Tetanus

D. Cramps

109. Temporary involuntary contractions or spasms is known as

A. Muscle cramps

B. Writer’s cramp

C. Dancer’s cramp

D. Producer’s cramp

110. A condition of muscle in which its capacity to produce maximum contraction is reduced though the muscle still may be excited by stimuli is known as

A. Cramps

B. Tetany

C. Muscle fatigue

D. All of these

111. Excess intracellular accumulation of acids in the muscles to acute acidosis and alters contractile proteins is

A. Formic acid

B. Citric acid

C. Acetic acid

D. Lactic acid

112. Rising of pH causes

A. Muscle disease

B. Stiffness of joints

C. Loss of muscle tone

D. Infection

113. The most important cause of tetany is

A. Low levels of phosphate

B. High levels of calcium

C. Low levels of calcium

D. Low levels of iron

114. Tetanus is also known as

A. Spasm of groups

B. Infection of nervous system

C. Disorder of muscles

D. Viral infection

115. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium

A. Staphylococcus tetani

B. Clostridium tetani

C. Mycoplasma tetani

D. Chlamydium tetani

116. In the absence of Clostridium tetani, how many years can spores remain infectious in soil?

A. 10 years

B. 20 years

C. 30 years

D. 40 years

117. The spores of C. tetani release toxins in the body which produce a poison called

A. Tetanospasmin

B. Tetanotoxin

C. Tetanosporin

D. None of these

118. The disorder in which bones are porous and due to bone composition is known as

A. Osteomalacia

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rickets

D. Arthritis

119. The inorganic portion of bone provides an important property of bone but

A. Tensile strength

B. Hardness

C. Shock resistance

D. Flexibility

120. Remodeling of bone is a function of which cells

A. Osteocytes

B. Osteoblasts

C. Osteoclasts

D. Both B and C

121. In skeletal muscle, calcium facilitates contraction by binding to

A. Tropomyosin

B. Actin

C. Troponin

D. Myosin

122. The function of the sarcolemma in muscle contraction is to

A. Make and store glycogen

B. Make the action potential deep into muscle cells

C. Release Ca²⁺ into the cell and start its activity

D. Transmit the nerve impulse

123. The site where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted to nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membrane are the

A. Neuromuscular junctions

B. Sarcomeres

C. Myofibrils

D. Z-discs

124. Temporary stiffness of muscles after death is known as

A. Rigor mortis

B. Osteoporosis

C. Arthritis

D. Tetany

Answer keys :

1. A

2. D

3. D

4. C

5. B

6. C

7. B

8. B

9. D

10. A

11. B

12. C

13. B

14. A

15. C

16. B

17. A

18. C

19. D

20. A

21. B

22. C

23. C

24. A

25. C

26. B

27. D

28. C

29. B

30. C

31. A

32. D

33. B

34. C

35. D

36. B

37. A

38. C

39. D

40. A

41. B

42. C

43. A

44. B

45. D

46. B

47. C

48. D

49. A

50. B

51. B

52. C

53. B

54. A

55. C

56. D

57. A

58. C

59. B

60. D

61. A

62. B

63. C

64. A

65. D

66. B

67. A

68. C

69. D

70. A

71. B

72. C

73. D

74. A

75. B

76. C

77. D

78. A

79. B

80. C

81. A

82. D

83. B

84. C

85. A

86. D

87. B

88. C

89. A

90. D

91. B

92. A

93. C

94. B

95. C

96. D

97. A

98. B

99. C

100. D

101. A

102. B

103. A

104. B

105. D

106. A

107. B

108. C

109. D

110. B

111. C

112. A

113. B

114. A

115. B

116. D

117. A

118. B

119. D

120. B

121. C

122. D

123. A

124. A

Exam tips

Practice these mcqs before one month of your exam. This will help you revise your whole chapter and for MDCAT aspirant keep practicing them to increase your accuracy,the more you practice the more you will be better in that topic.

 My honest suggestion 

My honest suggestion is to study your notebook thoroughly and after that solve the mcqs so it will be easy for you solve and practice as much as possible.

If you want more mcqs check : important biology mcqs

            Written by: 

                              Dr.Laiba Noor